Pharmacy Practice MCQ
Welcome to our ultimate guide on pharmacy practice MCQ! If you’re looking to sharpen your understanding or prepare for an exam, you’ve come to the right place. In this article, we’ve curated a comprehensive list of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) tailored for aspiring pharmacy students.
Our MCQs are designed to challenge your knowledge and provide a deeper understanding of the subject matter. Each question is crafted to reflect real-world scenarios and theoretical concepts, making it an excellent resource for both students and professionals in the pharmaceutical industry. Read following article of pharmaceutical inorganic chemistry for your reference.
Download answers in PDF format, PIC unit IV
- Which of the following is a common expectorant that helps in thinning mucus?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Codeine
C) Guaifenesin
D) Loratadine
2. Expectorants primarily act on which part of the body?
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Stomach
D) Liver
3. Guaifenesin is commonly used for which type of cough?
A) Dry cough
B) Wet cough
C) Allergic cough
D) Chronic cough
4. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of expectorants?
A) Reducing mucus viscosity
B) Increasing ciliary movement
C) Stimulating the cough reflex
D) Suppressing the cough reflex
5. Which of the following is an adverse effect of expectorants?
A) Dry mouth
B) Diarrhea
C) Drowsiness
D) Increased heart rate
6. Which expectorant is derived from the bark of a tree?
A) Ammonium chloride
B) Guaifenesin
C) Terpin hydrate
D) Eucalyptus oil
7. What is the primary use of expectorants in clinical practice?
A) Pain relief
B) Reducing fever
C) Cough relief
D) Nausea control
8. Which expectorant has a dual role as both an expectorant and a muscle relaxant?
A) Guaifenesin
B) Dextromethorphan
C) Codeine
D) Loratadine
9. How do expectorants affect the consistency of mucus?
A) They thicken it
B) They dissolve it
C) They make it more viscous
D) They thin it
10. Which of the following is NOT an expectorant?
A) Guaifenesin
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Codeine
D) Potassium iodide
11. Which of the following is a common emetic?
A) Loperamide
B) Ipecac syrup
C) Omeprazole
D) Ranitidine
12. Emetics are used to induce vomiting for the purpose of?
A) Treating constipation
B) Managing heartburn
C) Emptying the stomach in case of poisoning
D) Reducing fever
13. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of emetics?
A) Poisoning by corrosive substances
B) Overdose of non-corrosive substances
C) Acute gastritis
D) Both A and C
14. Emetics should be administered within how many hours of ingestion of a poison for optimal effectiveness?
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 4 hours
15. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the vomiting reflex induced by emetics?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Histamine
16. What is the main action of ipecac syrup as an emetic?
A) Stimulates the stomach lining
B) Decreases gastric motility
C) Acts as a strong base
D) Relieves heartburn
17. Which of the following is an emetic used in veterinary medicine?
A) Xylazine
B) Acepromazine
C) Apomorphine
D) Diazepam
18. Emetics are contraindicated in which of the following scenarios?
A) Ingestion of hydrocarbons
B) Alcohol overdose
C) Overdose of aspirin
D) Overdose of iron supplements
19. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for the vomiting reflex?
A) Cerebrum
B) Hypothalamus
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebellum
20. What is the primary benefit of using emetics in acute poisoning cases?
A) Slows down toxin absorption
B) Increases toxin absorption
C) Promotes toxin elimination through vomiting
D) Neutralizes the toxin
21. Which of the following is a common haematinic?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Paracetamol
C) Warfarin
D) Metformin
22. Haematinics are used primarily for treating?
A) Hypertension
B) Anemia
C) Diabetes
D) Hyperlipidemia
23. Which vitamin is often combined with iron supplements to enhance absorption?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
24. A common side effect of oral iron supplements is?
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Drowsiness
D) Hypertension
25. Which of the following is NOT a source of haematinics?
A) Red meat
B) Leafy green vegetables
C) Dairy products
D) Legumes
26. What is the primary role of haematinics in the body?
A) Regulate blood pressure
B) Enhance blood oxygen-carrying capacity
C) Control blood sugar levels
D) Reduce cholesterol levels
27. Which of the following minerals is essential for the production of hemoglobin?
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
28. Folic acid is important for which process in the body?
A) Bone formation
B) Muscle contraction
C) DNA synthesis
D) Neural transmission
29. Which condition is commonly treated with haematinics?
A) Hypertension
B) Anemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypotension
30. Which of the following is a common cause of iron-deficiency anemia?
A) Excessive alcohol consumption
B) Chronic kidney disease
C) Blood loss
D) High cholesterol
31. Which of the following is an antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) poisoning?
A) Atropine
B) N-acetylcysteine
C) Naloxone
D) Activated charcoal
32. Which substance is commonly used to induce vomiting in cases of poisoning?
A) Charcoal
B) Emetics
C) Saline
D) Benzodiazepines
33. Activated charcoal is most effective when given within how many hours after ingestion of a poison?
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 6 hours
34. The antidote for opioid overdose is?
A) Flumazenil
B) Atropine
C) Naloxone
D) Ethanol
35. Which of the following is used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning?
A) Sodium thiosulfate
B) Atropine
C) Warfarin
D) Vitamin K
36. Which of the following substances is used to treat methanol poisoning?
A) Ethylene glycol
B) Fomepizole
C) Acetylcysteine
D) Aspirin
37. What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Digoxin-specific antibody fragments
D) Sodium bicarbonate
38. Which antidote is used for organophosphate poisoning?
A) Atropine
B) Protamine
C) Fomepizole
D) N-acetylcysteine
39. What is the primary action of naloxone in opioid overdose?
A) Increases opioid absorption
B) Blocks opioid receptors
C) Enhances opioid metabolism
D) Induces vomiting
40. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of poisoning?
A) Nausea
B) Confusion
C) Hyperactivity
D) Abdominal pain
41. Astringents are substances that cause?
A) Vasodilation
B) Tissue contraction
C) Increased secretion
D) Muscle relaxation
42. Which of the following is a common astringent used in skincare?
A) Salicylic acid
B) Witch hazel
C) Retinol
D) Benzoyl peroxide
43. Astringents are often used for which of the following purposes?
A) Increasing appetite
B) Reducing inflammation
C) Soothing sunburn
D) Tightening pores
44. Which of the following is an adverse effect of overuse of astringents?
A) Oily skin
B) Dryness and irritation
C) Hyperpigmentation
D) Increased sweating
45. Which natural substance is commonly known for its astringent properties?
A) Aloe vera
B) Tea tree oil
C) Cucumber extract
D) Lemon juice
46. Which of the following astringents is used in the treatment of hemorrhoids?
A) Witch hazel
B) Glycerin
C) Salicylic acid
D) Tea tree oil
47. Astringents can help in reducing which of the following skin conditions?
A) Eczema
B) Acne
C) Psoriasis
D) Rosacea
48. Which metal salt is commonly used as an astringent in medical practice?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Zinc sulfate
C) Potassium chloride
D) Calcium carbonate
49. Which of the following is NOT an effect of astringents?
A) Constriction of tissues
B) Reduction of oiliness
C) Increase in pore size
D) Reduction of bleeding
50. Astringents are often included in which type of personal care product?
A) Shampoos
B) Deodorants
C) Cleansers
D) Toothpaste
51. Which antidote is used for methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
A) Fomepizole
B) Flumazenil
C) Atropine
D) Digoxin-specific antibodies
52. What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Atropine
D) Acetylcysteine
53. Which of the following is a common sign of cyanide poisoning?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Excessive salivation
C) Garlic odor on breath
D) Blurred vision
54. The antidote for heparin overdose is?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Fresh frozen plasma
D) Ethanol
55. Which substance is used to treat arsenic poisoning?
A) Dimercaprol
B) N-acetylcysteine
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Activated charcoal
56. What is the primary action of sodium thiosulfate in cyanide poisoning?
A) Blocks cyanide absorption
B) Converts cyanide to a less toxic form
C) Enhances cyanide metabolism
D) Induces vomiting
57. Which of the following symptoms is associated with organophosphate poisoning?
A) Dry mouth
B) Muscle weakness
C) Increased heart rate
D) Hyperactivity
58. The antidote for digitalis toxicity is?
A) Digoxin-specific antibodies
B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Calcium gluconate
D) Magnesium sulfate
59. What is the role of acetylcysteine in acetaminophen poisoning?
A) Enhances acetaminophen metabolism
B) Neutralizes acetaminophen
C) Replenishes glutathione levels
D) Induces vomiting
60. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for poisoning?
A) Gastric lavage
B) Hemodialysis
C) Forced diuresis
D) Hypothermia
Download answers in PDF format, PIC unit IV
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